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His Name gp340» Who or what is Jesus Christ? Is he God, man, or man/God? Was he
spirit, or human? Did he pre-exist before he was born? What does the Bible
mean by saying he is the Son of God? gp341» Let's begin with Christ's name. The Bible uses a name not only to
point out a person among others, but also to describe that person. For
example "Satan" means the hater, or accuser, or adversary. The name
"Christ" tells us also something about him. "Christ" in the New Testament is
a translation from a Greek word (Christos, # 5547) that is equivalent to
"Messiah" of the Old Testament, and the Greek word means "anointed" as
with oil, and implies to consecrate for an office or religious service. The word
"Jesus" is from a Greek word (Iesous, # 2424) that means "Jehovah ('s or is)
salvation." The meaning of Jesus Christ's name speaks of Jehovah's [the
BeComingOne's] anointed savior which Jesus Christ was and is and will be. gp342» Although we call Jesus Christ, "Jesus Christ," he was not called
"Jesus Christ" by his acquaintances before his death, but he was called
"Immanuel" and/or "Jesus" because that was the
name(s) he was given: gp343» Before Jesus' resurrection, he was not openly called the "Christ"
(Matt 16:15-16, 20; Luke 9:20-21). Only after his resurrection was he called Christ
by his disciples and by his apostles. By some of his enemies Jesus was called
such names as, impostor or deceiver (Matt 27:63). The New Testament writings
were written after Jesus's resurrection, and thus the writers used "Jesus
Christ" because at that time they knew he was the Messiah -- the Christ, or
the one anointed the yhwh. (See later in the God Papers for details.) gp344» This is similar to two in marriage. A woman named Mary Jones
marries Joseph Smith, so after their marriage she is called Mary Smith. Later
in life some may say Mary Smith moved from Seattle to San Jose when she
was seven years old, even though Mary Smith was not known as "Smith"
when she was seven; she was known as Mary Jones when she was seven. So
when the writers of the New Testament say Jesus Christ did this and did that
before his death, it did not mean that he was called Jesus Christ at that time. It
was only after his death and resurrection (when the New Testament was
written) that his followers openly called him, Jesus Christ. gp345» "Christ" which means anointed has a special meaning in context of
its usage in the Bible. When one is anointed it represents something, "then
Samuel took the horn of oil, and anointed him [David] in the midst of his
brethren: and the spirit of the BeComingOne came upon David from the day
forward" (1Sam 16:13). And, "but you are an anointing from the Holy One, and
you know all things ... But the anointing which you have received of him
lives in you, and you need not that any man teach you: but as the same
anointing teaching you all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it has
taught you, you shall live in him" (l John 2:20, 27). gp346» Note that after David was anointed, the spirit came to him. And
also notice that with the true anointing, "you know all things," the anointing
"lives in you," and the anointing "is truth." Now to be spiritually anointed in
the highest sense is to receive God's Spirit and that anointing from the Holy
One leads you into truth so you know all things concerning the Spiritual (l
John 2:20, 27). gp347» To confirm that Spiritual anointing is anointing with the Spirit,
compare l John 2:20, 27 with: "the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you
into all truth..." (John 16:13). And, "the Comforter, which is the Holy Spirit,
whom the Father will send in my name, He shall teach you all things" (John
14:26). gp348» Thus, Christ's own name tells us he is anointed with the Spirit.
"The Spirit of the Lord [= yhwh of OT] is upon me, because he has anointed
me [Jesus] to preach the gospel to the poor" (Luke 4:18). Hence, Christ is
anointed with the Spirit to preach the gospel. This is one of Christ's
commissions from God. gp349» Remember that the word "Jesus" is translated from a Greek word,
Iesous, the equivalent of the Hebrew, Jehoshua [Yehoshua], which means,
The BeComingOne (is) savior, or the BeComingOne's savior. This could be
written as, "Yehowah's Savior," or "Jehovah's Savior." Jesus Christ's name
has the meaning that is equivalent to the English's, "The BeComingOne's
savior, anointed" or "anointed The BeComingOne's savior." "For unto you is
born this day in the city of David a Savior, which is Christ (the) Lord"
(Luke
2:11). This could be translated :"... a Savior which is anointed Lord." "The
Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the World" (l John 4:14). "And she shall
bring forth a son, and you shall call his name Jesus: for he shall save his
people from their sins" (Matt 1:21). Jesus Christ is Jehovah's anointed Savior
of the world. "Savior" also indicates one who sets free or delivers those
captured or enslaved. Jesus Christ will and is setting the world free from the
slavery and confusion of this age through the New Mind of the New Spirit (John 8:31-36; Rom 8:2). gp350» In the Old Testament it foretold the birth of Jesus Christ: "he shall
cry unto Me, you art my Father, my God, and the rock of my salvation. Also I
will make him My first born, higher than the kings of the earth" (Psa 89:26-27).
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government [rulership of God] shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called
Wonderful, Counselor, the mighty God, the duration Father, the Prince of
Peace" (Isa 9:6). "I will declare the decree: the BeComingOne has said unto
me, You art my Son; this day have I begotten you" (Psa 2:7; Heb 1:5). gp351» "The BeComingOne came unto Nathan, saying, Go and tell my
servant David, Thus says the BeComingOne ... and when your days be
fulfilled, and you shall sleep with your fathers, I will set up your seed after
you, which shall proceed out of your bowels, and I will establish his
[Christ's] kingdom. He shall build a house for my Name and I will establish
the throne of his kingdom for olam. I will be his [Christ's] father, and he shall
be my son" (2Sam 7:4, 5, 12-14). gp352» The Bible also shows the fulfillment of these prophesies. "This is
my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased" (Matt 3:17). "And I saw, and bare
record that this is the Son of God" (John 1:34). "I come in my Father's name
[the son of yhwh, thus Jesus had His Name]"
(John 5:43). "Concerning his
[God's] Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David
according to the flesh" (Rom 1:3; Acts 2:30). gp353» Thus, Jesus is the Son of God as well as the seed of David as
promised (Luke 3:23-38). Further Christ is the seed of Eve that was promised to
bruise the head of Satan (Gen 3:15; Rom 16:20; Psa 91:13; see The "Seed Paper" [PR 1]). gp354» Jesus Christ is called Son of God, but also he is called Son of man
(Acts 7:56). Now to be a son of mankind, one needs to be human. Jesus was
human for he was a son of Mary (Mark 6:3). "And Joseph also went up from
Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judea, unto the city of David, which
is called Bethlehem (because he was of the house and lineage of David) to be
taxed with Mary his espoused wife [notice not wife, but espoused wife; for Joseph
hadn't consummated the marriage, see Matt 1:24-25], being large with a child ... And
she brought forth her first-born son" (Luke 2:4-5, 7). Thus another prophecy
about Christ came true, "but you Bethlehem ... out of you shall he come forth
unto me that is to be ruler in Israel" (Micah 5:2). Jesus was born in Bethlehem
as prophesied in Micah and confirmed in Luke. "Therefore the
BeComingOne himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive,
and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel" (Isa 7:14). gp355» As we've shown you Joseph hadn't consummated the marriage,
and after Gabriel had told Mary about the son that she was to bring forth,
"said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?" (Luke
1:34) Mary was a virgin mother. "But when the fullness of the time was come,
God sent forth his Son, made of a woman" (Gal 4:4). gp356» Notice in Galatians 4:4 that God's Son was "made"
(KJV) or was
"born" (NIV) of a woman. This word "made" is translated from a Greek word
ginomai (# 1096) which means: "to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin
to be, receive being" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). From the Greek Gal 4:4
reads: It says that God's Son was made out of a woman. This same Greek word,
ginomai, is also found in two other closely related verses: The Son of God first came into existence from a woman, who was flesh
("according to the flesh"), who was also a seed of David. gp357» Furthermore, these verses are related in meaning to 1John 4:2: The word translated "has come" is a Greek verb in its participle perfect
tense (The Analytical Greek Lexicon). Christ did come in the flesh as the above
verses indicate. In fact, he first came into existence through a woman. He had
no pre-existence. The word "pre-existence" is a self contradiction. Scriptures
prove that Jesus Christ the man did not exist before he was born from a
woman (see later). gp358» Jesus Christ was a Son of mankind, not a product of man through a
male and female union, but from mankind through his mother. Mary was
Christ's mother, but Joseph was not his real father, for Joseph didn't "know"
Mary. At that time Mary was a virgin. Thus, Jesus is a son of man or mankind
through the medium of Mary only. gp359» Let's understand this virgin birth, and see how Jesus is a Son of
God through being born from a woman: gp360» This is why the Bible calls Christ the Son of God. God, the highest
power, the power of the Holy Spirit, conceived Jesus Christ in the womb of
Mary. In this way, Christ is a Son of God. (In another way Christ is the Son
of God, as Christians are sons of God, because he had the Spirit of God in
him.) Through the power of God, Mary conceived, not through the power of
a male's sperm. Basically, what the male's sperm does when it contacts a
female's ovum (egg-cell) is to initiate a chemical-biological chain reaction.
Through this chemical reaction the egg-cell grows into a child. Jesus Christ
began as any other child from an ovum. But this egg-cell was fertilized not by
a male's sperm, for Mary was a virgin. It was the power of God that fertilized
this egg-cell that became Christ. How? God by merely duplicating the
chemical code of a male's sperm conceived Jesus. Since God designed the
ovum and sperm, he knows how they work and thus is able to initiate the
chemical reaction in an ovum needed to produce a child. Through the power
of God the Father, Mary conceived. In this way, God is the physical father of
Jesus; Joseph is not the physical father of Jesus. Mary was a virgin to man,
but not to God, for in a sense God "knew" Mary. gp361» This is why Jesus Christ is called a mediator, "for there is one
God, and one mediator between God and men, the MAN Christ Jesus" (l Tim
2:5). Notice it was the man Jesus who was the mediator, not the resurrected
Christ. Now "mediator" means middle man or middle one. The man Jesus
Christ is the middle one between God and mankind. He was "Jesus of
Nazareth, a man" (Acts 2:22). This offspring of Mary and God was the
beginning of a union of man back to God. gp362» But notice that Christ was born "of the seed of David according to
the flesh" (Rom 1:3). Since Joseph is not the physical father of Christ, then
Joseph's genealogy (Matt 1:1-16) is irrelevant. Therefore, in order for Jesus
to be a seed of David, Mary must be a seed of David. And she is. gp363» Read Matthew 1:1-15, "and Jacob begat Joseph the husband of
Mary, out of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ" (V. 16). From verse
two to verse fifteen it says A begat B, and B begat C, and C begat D, etc. But
in verse 16 it said that "Joseph was the husband of Mary, out of whom was
born Jesus." It did not say Joseph begat Jesus, but it did say that Jesus came
out of Mary. As we have seen before, God begat Jesus through Mary. This
genealogy given in Matthew 1:1-16 is of Joseph, the foster father of Christ,
not the real father. We must look elsewhere to find Christ's human
genealogy. gp364» In Luke 3:23-38 it traces Jesus Christ's real lineage from Mary's
father Heli back to David, Judah, Abraham, Noah, and to Adam. This is the
genealogy of Christ's mother's side of the Family. gp365» Notice in Matthew 1:16 that it specifically says Jacob begat
Joseph. Now see the wording in Luke 3:23, "and Jesus himself began to be
about thirty years of age (being as supposed the son of Joseph) of Heli, of the
Matthat..." (Luke 3:23, 24). Jesus was supposed by the people around him, to be
the son of Joseph, "Is not this [Christ] the carpenter's son?," they wondered
about him (Matt 13:55). We know he was not the son of Joseph, but they
supposed that he was the son of Joseph. Even If Christ told them he was not
the son of Joseph, would they believe he came from a virgin mother? Luke
3:23 simply says Jesus was about 30, and that he was of Heli who was from
Matthat, etc. This verse merely added that Jesus was "supposed the son of
Joseph." In Matthew 1:1-16 it specifically identifies the genealogy of Joseph,
by the fact it said Jacob begat Joseph. In the Luke rendition it did not say Heli
begat Joseph. How could Joseph have two human fathers anyway? gp366» Examine both of these genealogies in Matthew and Luke, they are
different. Can Joseph have two genealogies? No, Matthew's account is
Joseph's genealogy, and in Luke's is Mary's genealogy. In the Matthew's
account it does not say Joseph begat Jesus, but Jesus came out of Mary.
Compare each genealogy and you'll see they are different. From David down
to Christ in each account, it is different except in two places. gp367» Mary's lineage came from David's son Nathan. Nathan was a son
of David as shown in 2Samuel 5:14, while Joseph's lineage comes from
Solomon. Notice further proof in Zechariah 12:12, "and the land shall mourn
[in verses 10 and 11 it prophesies of people: first looking on Jesus on the cross; and second
looking on Jesus when he returns, Rev 1:7], every family apart ['I am come to set a
man at variance against his father, and daughter against her mother,' Matt
10:35]; the family of the house of David apart, and their wives apart; the
family of the house of Nathan [Mary's family, Luke 3:31] apart, and their
wives apart" (Zech 12:12). [NOTE: Christ was on the cross, and possibly Christ's brothers were apart from their wives,
and Joseph was apart from Mary (Joseph isn't mentioned at the end of the accounts of Matthew,
Mark, Luke, and John -- he could have been dead or separated from his wife Mary). The Nathan
Family was apart because some of them believed in Christ while others didn't. There is also a
Spiritual meaning here. Christ had the Spirit of God and was apart from his brethren Spiritually
up until the time they received the Spirit.] gp368» Mary came from Nathan's lineage, but Joseph from Solomon's, yet
both from David since Nathan and Solomon were sons of David. Notice that
in Joseph's and Mary's genealogy from David back to Abraham and beyond
is the same. The break is from which son of David each genealogy came
from. (See the notes for this part of the God Papers for an explanation on an
apparent Biblical contradiction between Mary's and Joseph's genealogies
concerning who begot Shealtiel.) gp369» We have proved from scriptures that Jesus was a descendant of
David as promised David (2Sam 7:4-5, 12-14). Further, we saw that Jesus was the
son of God. God (yhwh) begot Jesus the man through the power of the Holy
Spirit (Luke 1:30-35). Thus, God is Jesus' physical Father
(Psa 2:7; Heb 1:5; Psa
89:26-27; 2Sam 7:4, 12-14). Therefore, Jesus is at once the Son of mankind and
the Son of God. gp370» Jesus is the middle one between man and God, "one mediator
between God and men, the MAN Christ Jesus" (l Tim 2:5). Jesus was flesh and
blood, born of woman (Gal 4:4). And his physical birth was initiated through
the power of God. gp371» But Jesus had another facet about him: he had God's Spirit inside
him. God's Spirit was not him, but inside him. This is very important: gp372» God gave Jesus a "sharp sword" (word of God) and God was
Christ's strength. It was God who gave his strength and words to Christ.
Christ didn't speak his own words or use his own power. Notice,"behold my
[the BeComingOne's] servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul
delights; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the
Gentiles" (Isa 42:l). "And the spirit of the BeComingOne shall rest upon him,
the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the
spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the BeComingOne" (Isa 11:2). This
"spirit of wisdom" is the same "wisdom" pictured in Proverbs 8:22ff. The
"spirit of wisdom" is God's Spirit. gp373» Jesus was prophesied to receive the BeComingOne's spirit of
wisdom, knowledge, and so on. Did he receive it? "The words that I speak
unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that lives in me, he does the
works" (John 14:10). Notice that the Father, the BeComingOne's Spirit, was
inside him and this Spirit, did the works. Even the words of knowledge that
Christ spoke were from the BeComingOne as Isaiah 11:2; John 14:10,24;
12:49-50; 8:38 prove. Jesus was set forth distinctively from men, not merely
by his resurrection (Rom 1:4), but by his works; Jesus says his Father did the
works (John 14:10). gp374» But since angels are spirits
(Heb 1:7; compare Heb 1:13 w/1:14), since
angels are messengers, and since messengers are word carriers, then the Spirit
in Christ was an angel. In fact it was the very angel of the BeComingOne
(yhwh). It was this angel who was the Word of God, who carried the words
of the BeComingOne (see GP 3). gp375» It was the Spirit or the angel of God in Christ the man that did the
good works. Jesus was sinless (John 8:46) and it was the Spirit in him that did
these works. Jesus was a human being, but he had the BeComingOne's Spirit
or mind inside him. He was not Spirit himself, for if he were spirit, one could
not see him (John 3:8). The man Jesus was flesh and blood, he was human, with
the BeComingOne's Spirit inside him. "God was manifest in the flesh" of
Christ (1Tim 3:16). "That God was in Christ"
(2Cor 5:19). gp376» "And she [Mary] shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his
name Jesus for he shall save his people from their sins. Now all this was
done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord [BeComingOne]
by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring
forth a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel, which being interpreted
is, GOD WITH US" (Matt 1:21-23). Names are used in the Bible to identify
characteristics of people. Immanuel, one of Jesus's names, means, "God with
us." INSIDE Christ, God was with the world. Christ the man was not God,
but God was inside him. Jesus was man only, until his resurrection from the
dead and his ascension to the Father. gp377» Notice, "by this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that
acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the FLESH, is of God" (l John 4:2,
see NKJV & Greek). John gives those reading the Bible a test: IF someone does
agree that Christ Jesus came in the flesh, then he is of God's Spirit. But
further John says: "and every spirit [in man] that acknowledges that Jesus is
not come in the flesh, is not of God: and this is the spirit of antichrist" (l John
4:3). Jesus was the Christ; He was the Messiah. Jesus was thus the promised
anointed one. He was anointed by the Spirit of God. He was anointed by the
very Word of God. If Jesus the man was the very Word of God, then how
could he have been anointed by the Spirit? If Jesus was already Spirit why
would he be anointed again with the Spirit again? Was he anointed by
himself? No Jesus came in the flesh, as a human being, and then was anointed
by the Spirit. The Savior of mankind came in the flesh with the Spirit of God
inside him. But this does not mean he saves us in or by his former state as a
man. We are saved by his resurrected life, not by his human life or death, but
by his new life. gp378» Jesus was not God before his resurrection. Jesus was a man with
God's Spirit inside him as many scriptures prove (John 14:10; 1Tim 3:16; John
10:38; etc.). Jesus Christ before his resurrection was a man: "the man Christ
Jesus" (l Tim 2:5). gp379» "He [Christ] came from God, and went to God"
(John 13:3). The
literal translation from the Greek of this verse reads: "and that from God he
came out of and to the God goes." Jesus Christ came out of God. He was a
physical offspring of God, as shown before, through the power of God. And,
"I came out from God. I came forth from the Father, and am come into the
world; again, I leave the world, and go to the Father" (John 16:27-28). By the
fact that God was Christ's "physical" father, by the power of the Father,
Christ indeed come out of the Father in the same sense that a son comes from
his father's physical seed. (There is a dual sense here, see later.) "Now are we
sure that you know all things, and need not that any man should ask you: by
this we believe that you came forth from God" (John 16:30). If one is from or
out of something, he is not that thing. Christ the man was from God, he was
not God. gp380»
There is an abundance of scripture that indicates that Jesus Christ
the man and His Father were two distinctive individuals or beings at one
time: All the above and other scripture indicate that Jesus Christ the man and
his Father were two before Jesus was resurrected and went to the right side of
his Father. Yet other scripture indicates somehow they were one (John 10:30) in
a way similar to the way Christians are one in God (John 17:21-23, 11; see 1Cor
12:12ff). When Jesus Christ the man was on earth before his resurrection he
was separate from his Father, yet he was ONE in a Spiritual sense, since
Christ the man acted as his Father directed (John 12:49-50). gp381» "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men,
the MAN Christ Jesus ... Now a mediator is not of one, but God is one" (l Tim
2:5; Gal 3:20). Jesus Christ the man as a mediator was not God, but God was
inside him, for the Spirit lived inside him. gp382» Word of God in Jesus. Jesus was a Spiritually begotten Son of
God through the Spirit inside him. Jesus had inside him the very Spirit or the
angel of the BeComingOne. The BeComingOne being the Father because the
Power of the BeComingOne predestinated all, thus in this sense the
BeComingOne is the Father, while the angel was the messenger and agent of
the Father. The archangel (as the messenger of the Father) was actually inside
his mind Spiritually leading him. Since Spirit takes up no space (as some
imagine space), it can and does live anywhere, including inside a human
mind. Since "angel" is a translation from a word meaning "messenger," then
the Spiritual Messenger of God the Father was inside Jesus the man's head
giving him Spiritual messages that enabled him to fulfill God's will. In a
sense, this angel was the Word of God -- the Word of the BeComingOne. gp383» And again, here is some proof that this Spirit or angel of God the
Father was inside Jesus the man: gp384» Jesus Christ the man, from a regular ovum in Mary, grew into a
man who was sinless (Heb 4:15) because of the power of the Spirit in him. He
was only given what was needed for his commission as the man Jesus Christ.
He was given God's Spirit that produced the wisdom of Christ the man (Isa
11:2-4) and the great works (John 14:10). But he was given only just enough to
do this. He "who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayer and
supplications with strong crying and tears unto Him that was able to save him
from death, and was heard in that he feared" (Heb 5:7). Jesus had to cry aloud
to his Father for help, "but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet
without sin" (Heb 4:15). Because of this, the resurrected Christ, "in that he
himself has suffered being tested, he is able to help them that are tested"
(Heb
2:18). Can God suffer or was God inside of Christ, not as Christ? gp385» We will explain later how Jesus became God, or we should say
was infused into the true God, after being resurrected to the right side of the
true God. This may be confusing until you understand who or what is the true
God. But for now let's go into more details to prove God's Spirit was inside
Christ the MAN. gp386» God was manifested in the flesh of Christ
(1Tim 3:16). And one of
Jesus Christ's names ("Immanuel") meant "God with us" (Matt 1:23). But we
have shown you that Jesus before his death was not God, but God was inside
him. Human beings are called temples of God and God lives inside these
temples, if these individuals are Spiritual Christians. "For we are the temple
of the living God" (2Cor 6:16). Even Jesus the man was the temple of his
Father's Spirit: "Jesus answered them. 'Destroy this temple, and I will raise it
again in three days.' The Jews replied, 'It has taken forty-six years to build
this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?' But the temple he had
spoken of was his body" (John 2:19-21). gp387» Although God the Father through his Spiritual messenger initiated
the chemical process in one of Mary's eggs that produced Christ, God didn't
put himself or transform himself with or as the flesh of Christ. God in a sense
begot Christ, through a chemical process (created sperm) to produce the
MAN Christ in the womb of Mary. At that time, God was not man, thus he
did not have physical sperm with genes in it. No physical genes from God
went into the ovum that produced Christ, for God being Spirit had no human
sperm when he produced Christ the man. Nor did a Spiritual "sperm" enter
the ovum, or else Jesus would have been part Spirit. But God did put his
Spirit into the mind of Christ. And it is this Spirit of God that led Christ as it
leads all sons of God (Rom 8:14) that are sons in the Spiritual or antitypical
sense. gp388» And it was through this Spirit in him that Jesus did the great works
(John 14:10). Yet just because it was the Spirit inside him that did the great
works, this doesn't mean the man Jesus did nothing. The Spirit in him worked
and produced Christ's good Spiritual fruit as the sap in trees produce the
fruit. Yet, as the sap needs the branches and the leaves to produce the fruit, so
does the Spirit need a body to produce the good fruit. As the leaves and the
branches help with the work, so did Christ the man help the Spirit produce
the good fruit. Yet without the Spirit no one can produce good fruit, as no
branch can produce fruit without the sap from the trunk and roots of the tree.
The Spirit is the energy needed to produce the good fruit, as the sap is the
energy needed to produce the fruit. They need each other to produce. The
Spirit in Christ worked and led Jesus just enough for Jesus the man to be
sinless. God gives enough Spiritual power for a person to do what is asked of
him (Rom 8:28ff; see New Mind Papers). gp389» Paul was "appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of
the Gentiles" by God (2Tim 1:11; Acts 9:15). And what did God answer Paul
about a problem he had: "my Grace is sufficient for you" (2Cor 12:9). "But by
the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me
was not in vain; but I labored [he did his appointed work] more abundantly
than they all: YET NOT I, but the grace of God which was with me" (1Cor
15:10). The grace of God did Paul's work, as the grace of God, or the Spirit of
God, or the New-Mind did the works of Christ (John 14:10). gp390» "And if Christ is not risen, then is our preaching futile, and your
faith is also futile ... For if the dead don't rise, then Christ is not raised ... If in
this life [our human life] only we have hope in Christ [the MAN], we are of
all men most miserable. But now Christ is risen from the dead" (1Cor 15:14, 16,
19-20). Christ must be alive and resurrected or our faith is just plain stupidity.
"WE SHALL BE SAVED BY HIS LIFE" (Rom 5:10). The Savior of mankind
came in the flesh as a human, but we are saved by his new resurrected life. gp391» Jesus the man was unique, he was a physical Son of God (through
God's power over the ovum) and a Spiritually begotten Son of God (through
the Spiritual power in his mind). Romans 8:9-17 and elsewhere manifests to
us that to be a Spiritual son of God, you must have God's Spirit in you. gp392» In the New Testament, it doesn't say when Christ received God's
Spirit in his mind, but it was probably from his birth (Isa 49:1-2, 5-6, "from the
womb"; cf Luke 2:32; see above), for during his childhood he had the Spirit and the
grace of God upon him (Luke 2:40, 46-47). Therefore when Christ was baptized
in water by John, the "Spirit of God descending like a dove," was
representative of Christ having the Spirit. People saw a dove land on Jesus
which fulfilled a sign that Christ was the one who baptized with the Spirit;
John merely baptized with water (John 1:33). Those John baptized didn't
receive the Spirit (Acts 18:24-25; 19:1-6). Christ received the Spirit at birth. The
water baptism by John of Jesus was symbolic only, for Christ already had the
Spirit (Luke 2:40). Christ only got water baptized to fulfill prophecy and
righteousness and to show a physical example or sign to Israel (Luke 2:40; Matt
3:11-16;Luke 3:15-16; John 1:30-33). gp393» Now some say that Jesus Christ the man and the BeComingOne
(Jehovah) of the Old Testament were one and the same person. They,
believing that the Word of God, God, and Jesus Christ are one and the same,
point out, "In the beginning was the Word ... and the Word was made flesh" (John 1:1,14). Therefore they say God somehow became flesh, but they have a
problem since they believe God is immutable or not changeable. Part of the
gymnastics that they go through because of their impossible theory is written
about in Trinity v. BeComingOne paper. (9) But as we have shown with many
proofs in GP 3 of the God Papers, the Word of the Old Testament was the
angel of the BeComingOne. It was through this angel or messenger that God
-- the BeComingOne -- spoke. This angel spoke for the Coming Power: the
God all in all; the BeComingOne that will finally become. The
BeComingOne spoke (Isa 52:6) in the Old Testament of the Bible, but he
spoke through His agent -- the angel, the very Word of God. The
BeComingOne was one and the same being as Christ's Father (GP 2). One of
the proofs of this came from Christ's own lips. Since the Jews' God is the
God of the Old Testament, then when Christ tells them his Father is the same
God, we know that the BeComingOne is the Father (John 8:54). gp394» Now if it was true, that the very God became flesh, and that he
became Christ the man, then it means the BeComingOne, the Father, died
when Christ died. We ask, if this is true, WHO RESURRECTED CHRIST
THE MAN? Scripture plainly shows us God the Father (through His
predestinated Power) raised Christ the man from death (Acts 2:32, 24; Rom 8:11;
1Cor 6:14). Thus, they were separate. God inside Christ the man, not God as
Christ the man. God was in Jesus Christ because His Spirit, that is His Angel,
or His Word (and the Power of His Word), was in Jesus Christ. Angels or
spirits do not die (Luke 20:36). God is immortal, unable to die
(1Tim 1:17). Jesus
said scripture could not be broken (John 10:35), therefore the BeComingOne
or his angels do not die. Before the resurrection God or His angel did not
become Christ the man. God in some way was living inside Christ the man.
Since the Father is the BeComingOne of the Old Testament, we know that
God was with man because he was somehow in Christ the man. God was in
Jesus through His Spirit, His Angel, His Spiritual messenger. gp395» Let's see what the scripture means by "the Word was made flesh."
From the Greek text this sentence reads, "and the Word became Flesh" (John
1:14). The real sense of this verse is that the Word became flesh after the
resurrection, for these words were written by John after the resurrection
(GP 5). But there is another sense to this verse. By other scriptures which we
shall show you, we can in light of these make this verse clear as following,
"and the Word became [in] flesh." For the antitypical or higher or real
meaning of this verse see GP 5 of the God Papers. gp396» "God who at different times and divers manners spoke in time past
unto the fathers by the prophets, Has in these last days spoken unto us in his
Son" (Heb 1:1-2; cf. Heb 2:2-3). God did not speak in the past (before Christ the
man) through His Son because he did not exist then. God spoke by or inside
his Son during his days on earth: Notice the prophecy of this, "I [the BeComingOne, Deut 18:15] will raise them
up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto you [Jesus came in the flesh, l
John 4:2-3, by the seed of mankind not angels, Heb 2:14, 16], and will put my words in
his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him"
(Deut
18:18). gp397» Jesus spoke the Words of his Father because the angel or
messenger of the BeComingOne was inside Jesus and was leading him. In
this way the Father was in Jesus the man leading him with God's Spirit (Isa
42:l; Rom 8:14). The Word was in the flesh, the Word was made and manifested
inside the flesh, but was not the same as the flesh before the resurrection. The
BeComingOne or the Father didn't become flesh, for if he did then God or
His angel died on the cross with and as Christ. But since immortal beings
cannot die, then God or His angel was not transformed into Christ in order to
die. gp398» Let's look at Christ's death, for by it we can prove positively what
we have put forth herein (For details see CP 4). Notice what is quoted in Acts
from the 16th Psalm, "because you [the BeComingOne] will not leave my
[Christ's] soul in hell, neither permit your Holy One to see corruption" (Acts
2:27). gp399» Who is the Holy One? He is the God of the Old Testament. In
other words, Christ's Father. "BeComingOne of hosts (is) his name, the Holy
One of Israel" (Isa 47:4). "Thus says the BeComingOne, the Holy One of
Israel" (Isa 45:11). There are about 40 places in the Old Testament where the
BeComingOne identifies himself as the Holy One. The BeComingOne will
not permit the Holy One (the BeComingOne himself) to see corruption.
Corruption is used by the Bible to indicate death. Thus God will not die on
any cross, as some make Him by having Jesus Christ the man joined to their
Trinitarian God. gp400» Christ the man died according to scripture
(1Cor 15:3), and was
buried for three days (Matt 12:40). And they buried his body in the grave
(John
19:40-42). Now Christ the man was resurrected after exactly three days and
three nights in the grave (see CP 4). But notice, "of the resurrection of Christ
that his soul was not left in hell [the grave], neither his flesh did see
corruption" (Acts 2:31). What? gp401» If Christ the man died, how could his flesh not see corruption?
Scripture as we have shown you said specifically Christ died. Since he was
flesh, that means his flesh died. But Acts 2:31 said his flesh didn't see
corruption. Notice the verse is speaking of the resurrection, and that his soul
was not left in the grave. He wasn't left in the grave. He was resurrected, and
after this resurrection his flesh didn't and won't see corruption again. gp402» Notice the proof of this rendition, "and as concerning that he
[God] raised him [Christ the man] from the dead, now no more to return to
corruption" (Acts 13:34). Acts 2:31 must be read in context of Acts 13:34.
Christ's flesh did see death, but after his resurrection his flesh will not see
corruption again (NOTE: the resurrected Christ does have a flesh and blood body, Luke
24:39). Thus in context of Acts 13:34, Acts 2:31 means "his flesh did see
corruption no more after his resurrection." And Acts 13:37 means in context,
"whom God raised, saw no [more] corruption." gp403» "You shall not permit your Holy One to see corruption"
(Acts 13:35).
Acts repeats this twice in Acts 13:35 and Acts 2:27. The "Holy One" is the
BeComingOne or the Lord God of the KJV, an immortal being. He cannot die
according to scripture. Those who say Christ is the BeComingOne of the Old
Testament or the Lord or Jehovah of the Old Testament, say he became flesh
and died. But scripture says God will not permit the Holy One (the
BeComingOne [yhwh] himself) to die. Of course not, for the BeComingOne
is the Holy One. He is Christ's Father. He lived inside of Christ the man
through His angel who carried God's Word. gp404» But Acts does use a similar word formation as in Psalms 16:10 and
Acts 2:27. Notice Acts 2:31 and Acts 13:37. It seems to say Christ the man is
the Holy One by the word formation. But it does not speak of the Holy One.
It uses Christ's name, thus, fooling those who are not discriminating enough
to notice the difference. Those who do not know there is a difference between
the Holy One and Christ the man conclude that Christ didn't really die when
they look at Acts 2:31. When they see "neither his flesh did see corruption,"
they conclude he didn't really die. But as shown, they leave out Acts 13:34
which clears up Acts 2:31. gp405» Therefore Christ died, but the Holy One (the Father's Spirit) inside
Christ the man did not die. Notice where the Holy One left Christ the man's
body, "Father, into your hands I commend my spirit" (Luke 23:46). At that same
time "he gave up the breath." The Bible uses this last expression to indicate
dying, for life came at first from the breath of life (Gen 2:7). At the losing of
this breath of life, one loses his life. Also, at death, the man Christ gave up
his spirit or angel. And since his Spirit was what made the God in him, it was
at this point that the Holy One's Spirit left Christ's body. This fulfills
prophecy that the Holy One would not see corruption, but that Christ the man
died. gp406» Now some will probably point to Acts 3:14 in order to prove (they
think) that the man Jesus was the Holy One, "but you denied the Holy One
and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you" (Acts 3:14). But
HOW did they deny the Holy One? "If you had known me, you should have
known my Father also: and from henceforth you know him, and have seen
him ... Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the
words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that lives
inside me, he does the works" (John 14:7, 10). "It is the Spirit who gives life; the
flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and are life" (John 6:63). Christ's good works and his words came from the good Spirit
inside him. "God was manifest in the flesh" (1Tim 3:16). They denied the Holy
One because Christ was a shadow or image of the Holy One (Col 1:15), for
Christ did exactly as the Holy One in him led him. gp407» The angel of the BeComingOne did not die on the cross with
Christ the man. Jesus the man died. Jesus came in the flesh (l John 4:2-3). He
was made just like his brothers, as flesh and blood, as a human (Heb 2:14, 16).
Jesus the man was commissioned before the world began to be sinless, to die
for sin, and to be resurrected into God. gp408» Jesus the man is the Spiritual Lamb of God who before the
foundations of the world was chosen to be a spotless or sinless "lamb"
through the power of God's Spirit inside him (Compare John 1:29; Rev 13:8; Isa
53:7-8; Matt 12:18; 1 Pet 2:4; Isa 49:7; John 14:10; Rom 1:4). gp409» It was by the death of one spotless, sinless human being, that God
is going to reconcile the world to himself (Rom 5:18; 2Cor 5:19; 1Tim 2:5-6). God
who through his Spiritual power begot Jesus physically as well as Spiritually,
has given his own physical Son as a sacrifice for all man's sins (l Tim 2:6).
Jesus as a man was a physical son of God as explained before, but a
Spiritually begotten son not yet born. After Christ the man was resurrected,
he became a Spiritually born Son of God as opposed to a Spiritually begotten
son of God. To understand the difference between being begotten and being
born, see the "Begotten, Born Paper" [NM5] in the New Mind Papers. gp410» Notice the proof of Christ's commission, "for as by one man's
[Adam's] disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one
[Jesus] shall many be made righteous ... for if, when we were enemies, we
were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled,
we shall be saved by his life" (Rom 5:19, 10). "Christ was without sin, but for
our sake God made him share our sin [or share the effects of our sins] in
order that in union with him [Jesus] we might share the righteousness of God
... he [Jesus] bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the
transgressors" (2Cor 5:21, TEB; Isa 53:12, NIV). "For there is one God, and one
mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a
ransom for all, to be testified in due time" (l Tim 2:5-6). God the Father gave
his physical Son, the man Christ, to be a sacrifice for the transgressions of all. gp411» How can someone "pre" exist? It is against the Law of
Contradiction to say that Jesus the promised Messiah and Son of God existed
before he existed. But since the "pre- existence" of Jesus Christ the man is a
popular theory today, we are going to show you the evidence that he first
came into existence when he was conceived or begotten in the womb of
Mary. We will also look at the so-called scriptural evidence used by others to
"prove" that Christ the man existed as some kind of "god" or "angel" before
he was born. gp412» The biggest proof that Jesus Christ did not exist before he was
born, is the evidence given in the introduction chapter of the God Papers: it
would be against the very Law of Contradiction for an immortal being (a
being not capable of death) to be changed into a being that is mortal in order
for that being (Jesus Christ) to die, or for the being to be simultaneously
immortal, yet capable of death (see GP 1, "Introduction"). gp413» "By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that
acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the FLESH, is of God" (l John 4:2,
see NKJV & Greek). John gives those reading the Bible a test: IF someone does
agree that Christ Jesus came in the flesh, then he is of God's Spirit. But
further John says: "and every spirit [in man] that acknowledges that Jesus is
not come in the flesh, is not of God: and this is the spirit of antichrist" (l John
4:3). Christ did not come as a transformed spirit, angel, or God, but he "has
come in the flesh." gp414» And it was the "man Christ Jesus; who gave himself a ransom for
all" (1Tim 2:5-6). It was not the Spirit of Christ that gave himself for mankind,
but the "man Jesus Christ." The Spirit of Christ the man was inside Christ
before his death; thus, Christ the man gave up his Spirit when he died (note
Luke 23:46; Matt 27:50; Mark 15:37; John 19:30). gp415» "The BeComingOne came unto Nathan, saying, Go and tell my
servant David, Thus says the BeComingOne ... and when your days be
fulfilled, and you shall sleep with your fathers, I will set up your seed after
you, which shall proceed out of your bowels, and I will establish his
[Christ's] kingdom. He shall build a house for my Name and I will establish
the throne of his kingdom for olam. I will be his [Christ's] father, and he shall
be my son" (2Sam 7:4, 5, 12-14). Look at this carefully. This is a prophecy of the Messiah. He must be a
seed or offspring of David, but also the son of the God. How can he be a son
of man and a son of God at the same time? gp416» This prophecy of God's Seed coming out of David who would also
be God's son ("my son") pointed to the future when God would make his Son
through the means of Mary. It was through Mary that God's only begotten
son was made, not at some previous time: gp417» Notice these emphasized words are in the future tense
(see Greek
text). God's Son did not exist before this time, and was not great before this
time (except in the forethought of God). The angel was announcing the
coming Son being born by a woman with the help of the Holy Spirit. The Son
did not exist before these events. gp418» Joseph hadn't consummated the marriage, for after Gabriel had
told Mary about the son that she was to bring forth, "said Mary unto the
angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?" (Luke 1:34) Mary was a
virgin mother. And with the help of the Holy Spirit Mary conceived a son (Luke 1:35, see above). "But when the fullness of the time was come, God sent
forth his Son, made of a woman" (Gal 4:4). gp419» Notice in Galatians 4:4 that God's Son was "made"
(KJV) or was
"born" (NIV) of a woman. This word "made" is translated from a Greek word
ginomai (# 1096) which means: "to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin
to be, receive being" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon). From the Greek Gal 4:4
reads: "But when had come fullness of the time, the God sent forth the Son of
Him, coming into existence from [or 'out of'] a woman." It says that God's
Son was made out of a woman. It did not say that before this event God
existed with the Son. God's Son was made or came into existence from a
woman by the power of the Holy Spirit (note earlier in this chapter). gp420» God didn't speak through the Son in "time past," but to the fathers
of Israel by the prophets, but in the last days He speaks in his Son (Note Heb
1:1-2). God did not speak by His Son in the Old Testament times because, His
Son did not exist at that time. gp421» "But again WHEN He [God] brings the firstborn into the world,
He says: Let all the ANGELS of God worship Him" (Heb 1:6; Deut 32:43, Greek
text). God brought His Son into the world by having him being made by a
woman with the power of the Holy Spirit (see above). But when the Son came
into the world angels were present to worship him. Thus, after the Son was
born: gp422» With Heb 1:6 and Luke 2:11-15 we see when (at Jesus's physical
birth) and how (with the angels worshiping him) the first born of God came
into the world; He (the man Jesus) did not exist before Mary conceived him
in her womb, except in the forethought of God gp423» All the so-called "pre-existence" scriptures can be shown to refer
to Christ the man's Spirit or angel existing before Christ the man. The Spirit
of Christ the man was the angel of the BeComingOne or the angel of Jehovah
(yhwh) as we have so far explained in the God Papers (GP 3). The Spirit of
Christ and the fleshly Christ the man are just as different as a man and a
woman in marriage even though according to the Bible they are ONE in
marriage. That is why Paul said that our fathers passed through the sea,
baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea, by the spiritual rock: "and
that Rock was Christ" (1Cor 10:1-4). The "spiritual Rock"
(1Cor 10:4) was Christ
even though Christ himself was not even born yet during Moses' time
because: gp424» Jesus Christ the man was/is the only begotten or born Son of God
(John 1:18; 1John 4:9). The scriptures we covered above indicate when and how
this Son was born: He did not exist before he was begotten; He was not
begotten twice for He is the only begotten Son of God. (There are two senses
to Jesus being the only begotten Son -- physical and Spiritual. We speak here
of the special physical sense as explained in this chapter.) gp425» Again, we repeat, there is no way for an immortal being to die.
Most, if not all, of those who believe that Jesus Christ existed before he was a
man have him existing as an immortal being (an angel or God). There is no
way an immortal being can die, for if he ever does die he proves he was never
immortal, but mortal. gp426» Some, but not all, who argue for the so-called "pre-existence" of
Christ the man are not thinking through their beliefs and are unknowingly
participating in the "big lie": gp427» It is a powerful delusion to believe in the contradiction of the
Trinitarian theory. But since most, if not all of us, at least subconsciously, act
in our daily lives as if they know the Law of Contradiction, then we are in a
sense knowingly participating in the "big lie" if we believe in the
contradictory Trinitarian theory. At one time I "believed" in the Trinitarian
theory, but was puzzled by it: on a certain level I believed; on a different level
I did not believe. This is not the only delusion we are under. There are just as
big contradictions in various fields of "science." Let's look at some of the scripture others use to "prove" their "pre-existence" theory: gp428» "In the beginning was the Word ... the Word was toward the God
... All things were made through him ... In him was life ... And the Word
became flesh" (John 1:1-4, 14, see Greek). But which beginning was John speaking about?: gp429» The word, "Word," was translated from the Greek word, logos.
This Greek word means, "something said (including the thought)." "Logos"
not only indicated the word spoken, but can also indicate the reason or
thought behind the word. But a word is spoken, that is, a word is spoken by
someone. The "Word" in the beginning was spoken by the God through His
angel or messenger for it was through angels that God spoke in the Old
Testament times (cf Heb 1:1-2 w/ 2:2-5): This is some proof that the Word and the true God are not one and the
same in the fullest sense: the Word comes from God, and is spoken ("God
said") from God, but is not the God. We have explained already in the Word
chapter that the Word was carried by the angel of God. Also in the Greek it
says, "the Word was toward the God" not the Word was "with" God (John 1:1;
cf. John 13:3). And the Greek says, "and God was the Word," not the Word was
God. The Word cannot be toward the God and at the same time be the true
God in the fullest sense. As shown in the Word chapter (GP 3) there is a very
close relationship between the Word or angel of God and the God, and as we
will show in a later chapter, the Word is indeed toward the true God, but is
not the God in the fullest sense of God all in all. The Word of God was/is
closely related to God, for it carries with it the power of God, for what God
says will happen. God does not lie (see GP 5 for more details on John 1:1-18 and the
rest of the God Papers). gp430» The Word became flesh in the truest sense after the death of Christ
the man (see GP 5). Another sense of John 1:14 ("And the Word became flesh")
is that during Christ the man's life on earth the Word was inside the flesh (see
this chapter, GP 4) gp431» This verse is speaking about the place of the birth of Jesus, and is
mostly incorrectly translated into something like this: It looks like the Messiah comes from past eternity. The problem is that
"eternity" should be translated olam which as explained in the "Age Paper"
(NM7) means an age of unknown length. In one sense Jesus Christ's going
forth was from the very old days, for since the beginning God had been
prophesying his coming. And the second meaning is that the Spirit in Christ
was from the old days, since the Spirit in Christ existed from the beginning of
creation. In fact this very Spirit created the universe. The man, the Messiah
born in Bethlehem, did not exist in the old days, for he first came into the
world through Mary, but his "going forth" by prophecy was from even before
the very beginning for he was predestinated before the cosmos (1Pet 1:19-20)
and he was the seed prophesied in Genesis (Gen 3:15). gp432» Other scriptures such as Proverbs 8:22-23 and John 8:58 can be
explained in this way: Christ's Spirit existed before the man Jesus was born.
This is the same for us. Our own Spirit has existed since the beginning, but
we were born in this age, a long time after the beginning. After we are
infused with our Spirit in the resurrection, we can say in a sense that we
existed from the beginning since our own Spirit existed from the beginning
even though there were many years after the beginning before we were born. gp433» "And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had
with you before the world began" (John 17:5). The Greek word translated "had"
here is an imperfect Greek verb that means "to possess" or "to hold." Christ
possessed in some imperfect or incomplete sense (remember the verb is in the
imperfect or incomplete tense) glory before the world began. gp434» Christ was predestinated to possess the glory of God after he was
born and thereafter was to obtain the Kingdom of God and its glory; in the
Old Testament it foretold the birth of Jesus Christ: gp435» Just as Jeremiah was known before he was born, and was ordained
a prophet before he was born (Jer 1:4-5), just as Paul was "appointed" an
apostle before the world began (2Tim 1:11, 9), just as Christians are chosen
before the world began (2Tim 1:9; 1 Per 1:2; 2Thes 2:13; see "Predestination Paper"
[NM8]), is how Jesus Christ possessed the glory of God before the world
began. Before the world began Jesus possessed the glory in an imperfect or
incomplete sense: thus the use of the imperfect Greek verb ("I had" -- KJV)
in John 17:5. It was in an incomplete sense because he at the beginning did
not yet have the glory, but was predestinated to have it. gp436» But when Jesus Christ the man was predestinated before the world
began he did not at that time possess the glory because at that time he did not
exist as the Son of God, nor did the great glory of God exist before the world
began: the great glory of God is coming, not here yet. In the truest sense, the
glory of the God will exist when the BeComingOne (yhwh) has come
(see
GP 6, "Glory of God," and rest of the God Papers). Such verses as Micah 5:2 can be
explained in the way we explained John 17:5. gp437» The scriptures that apparently say that Jesus Christ the man existed
in heaven before his birth can be explained by the fact that Christ the man
spoke the words of God, it was the Word of God or the angel of God inside
Jesus the man that existed before Christ was born (see above under, "God Inside
Christ"). Such verses as John 1:30; 3:13, 31; 6:33, 38, 51; 8:23, 42, 58; 1Cor
10:4; Col 1:17 and so forth can be explained in this way. As we will learn in
GP 6 we also have a spirit or angel that existed before we were born. Does
that mean we existed before we were born just because our spirit existed
before we were born? gp438» The scriptures that seem to say that Jesus Christ the man created
all things can be explained by the fact the Word or Spirit of the God was
inside Christ the man, and it was this Word of God that created the present
universe (Psa 33:6; Gen 1:1, 3 ["and God said"]). Another sense of Jesus Christ
creating all is explained in the next chapter. Read all the God Papers to
understand still more fully the meaning of the verses that seem to indicate
that Christ did/will create all. Some of these verses are John 1:1-4, 10; Col
1:16; Heb 1:2. gp439» The scripture in Proverbs 8:22-31, concerning the personification
of Wisdom, where "The BeComingOne possessed me [Wisdom] in the
beginning of his way before the works of old" can be explained by the fact
Jesus the man had the Spirit or angel of Wisdom inside him (see above under,
"God Inside Christ," note Isa 11:2; 42:1). gp440» The scriptures that seems to say the "pre-existent" Christ "emptied
himself" or "humbled himself" of his pre-birth glory or power to be born or
transformed or incarnated as Christ the man can be explained by the fact that
inside Christ the man was the Word or angel with the Name of God. It was
the Spirit inside Christ the man that humbled himself by being restricted
inside a human being while that being was being humbled by the ignorant
around him. And it was the man Jesus Christ the coming king who was also
humbled, for he knew he was predestinated by God to be king of the whole
world, yet he was treated with irreverence. These scriptures are Phil 2:6-8 and
2 Cor 8:9. gp441» Most, if not all, who point to the scriptures that seem to say that
Christ the man existed before he was born, speak of that pre-existent Christ as
God (i.e. in the "Trinity" God), or a God, or an angel. But God is immortal
and angels do not die (Luke 20:36). Therefore such an immortal
being cannot be
converted or transformed or incarnated into a being that can die. This is
foolishness (See Introduction chapter under, "Law of Contradiction"). gp442» Some use the scriptures on Melchizedek to try and prove that Jesus
Christ had no beginning of days, that he has always existed, and that
Melchizedek (or Melchisedec) and Jesus Christ are one and the same person.
They quote from Hebrews: They point out that Melchizedek had "neither beginning of days, nor end
of life, but made like unto the Son of God." So they conclude wrongly that
Melchizedek was Jesus Christ, and that this is proof that Jesus had no
beginning of days. But this misunderstands what Paul was saying and
misunderstands type and antitype in scripture. gp443» All one has to do to disprove that Jesus Christ and Melchizedek
are not one and the same person is to read Hebrews 7:14, "For it is evident
that our Lord sprang out of Judah; of which tribe Moses spake nothing
concerning priesthood." Jesus, our Lord, was an offspring from Judah. Jesus
had a genealogy and it is found in the Bible (Luke 3:23-38). Jesus was born "of
the seed of David according to the flesh" (Rom 1:3). All through the Old
Testament it predicted Christ's coming in the flesh (GP 4). It is the spirit of the
anti-Christ that will not admit that Christ came in the flesh (1John 4:3). Jesus
Christ came in the flesh with a clear genealogy. Where Christ differs from
others is that his Father was God, not a human father (GP 4). It is clear that
Jesus had a father and had a mother: he had a genealogy; he had a beginning.
But Paul said that Melchizedek was without father, without mother. So it is
clear from this alone that Melchizedek and Jesus are not one and the same
person. gp444» Jesus Christ did not pre-exist as some say, but nevertheless his
Spirit did exist before he was born (GP 3), as did my Spirit, as did your Spirit,
and as the Spirit of everyone else did exist before they were born (GP 6). Just
because Christ or you or I have a Spirit that existed before we were born
doesn't mean we pre-existed. We came into existence only when we were
physically begotten. gp445» But why did Paul say that Melchizedek was without father or
without mother, "having neither beginning of days, nor end of life." Was
Melchizedek an angel who always existed? No, for Paul said Melchizedek
was a man (Heb 7:4). And as a man he was born, and he also died, even though
the Bible did not record this fact. Look at what a study Bible had to say about
this point: Just because the Bible doesn't mention Melchizedek's genealogy doesn't
mean he had none. Paul shows in the book of Hebrews that the high priest
Melchizedek prefigured the priesthood of Christ (Heb 6:20). Christ's high
priesthood did not come from him being genealogically linked to the Levites
(who were priests by the Law), but through the "order of Melchizedek" (who
was without genealogical linkage to the Levites): "For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, a tribe with
reference to which Moses spoke nothing concerning priests. 15 And this
is clearer still, if another priest arises according to the likeness of
Melchizedek" (Heb 7:14-15, 99-15). But just because Melchizedek prefigured Christ in some way doesn't
mean he was Christ. The Passover lamb prefigured Christ. Does this mean the
lamb was Christ? Of course not. Other real persons in the Bible prefigured
Christ, does it mean they were Christ just because they were a type of Christ.
To get the "type" mixed up with the "antitype" is to show one does not know
what type and antitype mean. gp446» Notice that there is something strange in Mary's and Joseph's
genealogies. During the time of the Babylon captivity there is again a
common ancestor to Joseph and Mary's side of the family. "And after they
brought to Babylon, Jechoniah begat Shealtiel; and Shealtiel begat
Zerubbabel" (Matt 1:12). And,
"Zerubbabel, which was the son of Shealtiel,
which was the son of Neri" (Luke 3:27). Now in Matthew 1:12 it says
Jechoniah begat Shealtiel. This is impossible for Jechoniah had no sons who
lived to produce offspring (see 2Kings 24:12, 15; Jer 22:24, 30; note
Jechoniah=Coniah=Jehoiachin). But he had wives (2Kings 24:15). The scriptures said
Jechoniah begat Shealtiel, yet scriptures say he would have no sons. Thus, the
Bible contradicts itself? No! "If brethren [brothers or near of kin] live
together, and one of them die, and have not child [Jechoniah had no sons], the
wife of the dead [Jechoniah or Jehoiachin died without offspring, see 2Kings 24:12; Jer
52:31-34; Jer 22:24, 30] shall not marry without unto a stranger: her husband's
brother [or near of kin] shall go in unto her, and take her to him to wife, and
perform the duty of a husband's brother [or near of kin, see Book of Ruth, especially
3:11-13; 4:10, 13-14, this proves one doesn't have to be a brother, but be the nearest of kin
willing and able to perform this duty] unto her. And it shall be, that the first-born
which she bears shall succeed in the name of his brother which is dead, that
his name be not put out of Israel" (Deut 25:5-6). gp447» Therefore, a near of kin to Jechoniah performed his duty as
described in Deuteronomy 25:5-10 and married one of Jechoniah's wives.
The first-born of this relationship is accounted to the name of Jechoniah not
the name of the near of kin who married one of Jechoniah's wives. Hence
according to the laws of Israel Jechoniah begat Shealtiel even though
physically he didn't, but a next of kin did. gp448» The physical father of Shealtiel was Neri (Luke 3:27), but the legal
father (for the genealogy of David) was Jechoniah (Matt 1:12). Therefore Neri
was the near of kin who married one of Jechoniah's wives to conform to the
law of Deuteronomy 25:5-10. gp449» We have shown in this part that before Jesus Christ was
resurrected, he was a human being because he was born from a woman. Jesus
the man was not just any human being. Christ was also a Son of God, both
physically (through the Holy Spirit's union with Mary) and Spiritually
(through the medium of God's Spirit inside of him). Christ was also a Son of
man, for he was born through the means of Mary his mother. Christ was a
mediator between man and God; he was the Son of God and the Son of man.
Jesus Christ the man actually had the Spirit or Angel of the BeComingOne
(yhwh) inside him leading him in the right way. It was because of this Spirit
that Christ the man became sinless. God was not Jesus Christ the man, but
God was inside of Christ the man. When Jesus Christ the man died, his Spirit
was then separated from him. The Spirit or angel of God did not die as Christ
the man or with Christ the man, for Spirit cannot die. The angel of the
BeComingOne separated himself from Christ the man when Christ died. Two choices: (1) Continue on with your life as
you have been living, or (2) Move to the next phase of
this web site by becoming a participating
member and receive a password to the Church site so you can read
the rest of this article and other insightful articles, papers, and
letters not on this site, or May Grace abound to you and to all. The "next" section of the God Papers pertains to Jesus
Christ the God. But before we go there we need to review a few things before we can go on
to part 5. Click "next" to continue. to "Word of God"
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